CRNE Practice Questions (66-70)

Welcome to CRNE Practice Questions  Multiple Choice. Before you begin answering this questions, I recommend that you read this special offer that will surely help you to pass your Canadian Registered Nurse Examination:

CRNE Exam Prep Guide

Enjoy answering and I hope that this site: Nurse Certifications can somehow help you in your future nursing licensure examination. Good Luck.

 

66. Mr. Francis, 24 years old, has been hospitalized in the trauma unit for 1 month following a motor vehicle accident that left him quadriplegic. He expresses a great deal of anger about his condition. The nurse is preparing him for transfer to the rehabilitation centre. What nursing intervention would promote continuity of care for Mr. Francis?

a) establish objectives with Mr. Francis, and talk about his chances of recovery
b) explain the site of the injury to Mr. Francis, and check his level of understanding
c) encourage Mr. Francis to express his feelings, and encourage self-care
d) discuss the stages of rehabilitation wit Mr. Francis, and provide positive reinforcement

 

67. Mrs. Kelly, 52 years old, is experiencing symptoms of menopause, including occasional hot flashes and insomnia. She states that she exercises daily, meditates and has consulted a naturopath. She asks the nurse what else she could do to handle this transition. How should the nurse respond?

a) refer Mrs. Kelly for a physical check-up
b) advise Mrs. Kelly to take estrogen
c) Ask Mrs. Kelly to keep an exercise diary
d) encourage Mrs. Kelly to continue what she has been doing

 

68. CRNE Practice Questions about a personal care attendant who introduces herself to Riza, 18 years old, by saying that she is the nurse who will give her a bath daily. The nurse provides feedback to the attendant based on which of the following principles?

a) clients should be able to address by name those caring for them
b) young people do not understand this difference between the various levels of nursing staff
c) all health care workers giving basic care to clients may introduce themselves as a member of the care team
d) clients should know the title and responsibilities of those providing their care

 

69. What sign would indicate the presence of the most common complication of total parenteral nutrition therapy?

a) temperature of 39.2 C
b) cough with frothy sputum
c) watery, loose stools
d) blood glucose level of 102 mmol/L

 

70. Mr. Danny, 28 years old, has had numerous admissions to the psychiatric unit due to bipolar disorder. At the most recent admission, his wife tells the nurse that she cannot convince him to take his medication and that he has been drinking heavily. She and their two young children are no longer able to cope with his aggressive behaviour. She feels very guilty about being relieved when he is in hospital and asks for help. How should the nurse respond to this situation?

a) assure Mrs. Danny that her husband will stay in the psychiatric unit as long as possible, so that the family will have respite from this situation
b) ask Mrs. Danny if she would like to discuss her situation with the social worker
c) refer Mrs. Danny and her children to the local family crisis centre so that they can be relocated
d) tell Mrs. Danny that arrangements will be made for the community mental health worker to visit the home frequently

 

 

CRNE Practice Questions
Answers and Rationale

 

66) C – Correct
Rationale: this intervention is appropriate, as it is part of the second stage of the grieving process (i.e., anger). Verbalization and accepting responsibility for one’s own care are part of the adjustment process.

A – Incorrect
Rationale: this intervention is inappropriate, as it is part of the fourth stage of the grieving process (i.e., adaptation). It is still far too early to establish objectives for rehabilitation.

B – Incorrect
Rationale: this intervention is inappropriate, as it is part of the first stage of the grieving process (i.e., denial). The physician, not the nurse, is responsible for providing explanation about the site of the injury

D – Incorrect
CRNE Practice Questions Rationale: this intervention is inappropriate, as it is part of the third stage of the grieving process (i.e., depression). An angry person is not receptive to the explanations of positive reinforcement offered by the nurse.

 

67) D
– the methods Mrs. Kelly is using are appropriate, as the hot flashes and insomnia are occasional. By acknowledging this, the nurse is empowering Mrs. Kelly to continue coping with this developmental transition

 

68) D
– clients have the right to know the title and responsibilities of those providing care. The nurse also has a duty to ensure the quality of care.

 

69) D
– an elevated blood glucose level is the most common complication of TPN.

 

70) B
– families need support, encouragement and counseling to deal with the changing roles and relationships that mental illness may precipitate. The social worker is the appropriate resource to assist the family.

 

After you reviewed your answers through its rationale, you can proceed to the next set of questions:

CRNE Practice Questions (71-75)

 

or start from the beginning:

CRNE Practice Questions (1-3)

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CGFNS Exam Questions – Psychosocial Adaptation (1-5)

Welcome to the Commission on Graduates of Foreign Nursing Schools Questions. After answering the questions, you can proceed to the next set:

CGFNS Exam Questions – Psychosocial Adaptation (6-10)

 

Enjoy answering and I hope that our site: Nurse Certifications can somehow help you in your future examination.

Good Luck

 

1. The nurse is caring for a small child. Child abuse is suspected. The nurse understands that children are most frequently abused by a:

a. Baby sitter
b. Relative
c. Teacher
d. Casual acquaintance

 

2. A nurse and client working together for several weeks have developed a therapeutic relationship. As the nurse reminds the client that discharge is pending, the nurse can expect the client to most likely manifest symptoms of:

a. Panic
b. Grief
c. Splitting
d. Avoidance

 

3. A female client who has been abusing her son is undergoing treatment to control her behavior. A statement by the client that indicates the development of some insight into her behavior as a parent would be:

a. “I promise that I won’t get so angry when my son causes trouble again.”
b. “Once my son gets straightened out, we should not have these problems.”
c. “I think the root of the problem is when my husband comes home after drinking.”
d. 4. “If I feel angry at my son again, I’m going to go into the bedroom and punch a pillow.”

 

4. The nurse is discussing electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) with a client who asks how long will it be before she feels better. The nurse explains that the beneficial effects of ECT usually occur within:

a. One week
b. Three weeks
c. Four weeks
d. Six weeks

 

5. The nurse is caring for a client who is having a panic attack. Which symptom will the client least likely to exhibit?

a. Bradycardia
b. Choking
c. Chest pain
d. Fear of going crazy

 

 

CGFNS Exam Questions
Answers and Rationale

 

1) B
– in 90% of child physical abuse cases, the abuser is a relative whom he child trusts.

 

2) B
– the most common reaction to the experience of termination is grief. Panic may occur, but it is not most likely.

 

3) D
– this plan for behavior shows potential for increased impulse control, which is important for the prevention of further abuse.

 

4) A
– beneficial effects of ECT usually are evident after the first several treatments. Since treatments are administered at intervals of 48 hours, these effects are apparent after one week of therapy.

 

5) A
– a panic attack stimulates the sympathetic nervous system, resulting in an increased heart rate. Other options are seen in panic attack.

 

For more CGFNS Exam Questions, you can visit this site:

Commission on Graduates of Foreign Nursing Schools

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Fundamental NCLEX Questions (46-50)

Welcome to Fundamental NCLEX Questions. Before you begin answering the questions, you may first want to take a peek about the material that will surely help you the pass the NCLEX examination :

Complete NCLEX Study Materials

Enjoy answering and I hope that Nurse Certifications can somehow help you in your future examination. Good Luck

 

46. The nurse needs to suction a client’s tracheostomy. Which client position does the nurse use to promote deep breathing and coughing during suctioning?

a) sims’ position
b) supine position
c) side-lying position
d) semi-fowler’s position

 

47. A client with osteomyelitis is scheduled for indium imaging. Which does the nurse include in client teaching?

a) indium collects in normal bone only
b) indium collects in infected bone only
c) leukocytes tagged with indium accumulate in normal bone
d) leukocytes tagged with indium accumulate in infected bone

 

48. A nurse is doing a dressing change on a venous stasis ulcer that is clean and has a growing bed of granulation tissue. The nurse avoids using which of the following dressing materials on this wound?

a) hydrocolloid dressing
b) vaseline gauze dressing
c) wet-to-dry saline dressing
d) wet-to-wet saline dressing

 

49. A physician’s order reads: acetaminophen (Tylenol) liquid, 450 mg PO every 4 hours prn for pain. The medication label reads: 160 mg/5 ml. The nurse prepares how many milliliters to administer one dose?

Answer: ?

 

50. A client diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) is scheduled to go to the radiology department for a chest x-ray study. Which nursing intervention would be appropriate when preparing to transport the client?

a) apply a mask to the client
b) apply a mask and gown to the client
c) apply a mask, gown, and gloves to the client
d) notify the x-ray department so that the personnel can be sure to wear a mask when the client arrives

 

 

Fundamental NCLEX Questions
Answers and Rationale

 

46) D
– If not contraindicated, before suctioning a tracheostomy, the client is placed in semi-Fowler’s position to promote deep breathing, maximum lung expansion, and productive coughing. In this position, gravity pulls downward on the diaphragm, which allows greater chest expansion and lung volume. The lateral position, the supine position, or the Sims’ position is unlikely to allow for easy visualization of the tracheostomy or easy access of the suction catheter; in addition, the supine position increases the risk of client aspiration.

 

47) D
– A sample of the client’s blood is collected, and the leukocytes from the sample are tagged with indium. After injecting the leukocytes into the client, they accumulate in infected areas of bone and scanning detects the accumulation of indium, thus defining the infected bone. No special preparation or postprocedure care is necessary. Options A, B, and C are incorrect descriptions.

 

48) C
– The use of wet-to-dry saline dressings provides a nonselective mechanical debridement, whereby both devitalized and viable tissue are removed. This method should not be used on a clean, granulating wound. Granulation tissue in a venous stasis ulcer is protected through the use of wet-to-wet saline dressings, Vaseline gauze, or moist occlusive dressings, such as hydrocolloid dressings.

 

49) 14 ml

 

50) A
– Clients known or suspected of having TB should wear a mask when out of the hospital room to prevent the spread of the infection to others. A gown or gloves are not necessary.

 

After you reviewed your answers through its rationale, you can go back and start from the beginning:

Fundamental NCLEX Questions (1-5)

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CRNE Practice Questions (44-45)

Welcome to CRNE Practice Questions. Before you begin answering, I recommend that you read this special offer that will surely help you to pass your Canadian Registered Nurse Examination:

CRNE Exam Prep Guide

Enjoy answering and I hope that this site: Nurse Certifications can somehow help you in your future nursing licensure examination. Good Luck.

 

Scenario: A public health nurse visits Ms. Mercy, a 19-year old single parent. Ms. Mercy smokes, is 24 weeks pregnant, is unemployed and lives alone with her 3-year old son. She lives in a small, dirty, downtown basement unit that is poorly ventilated.

 

44. When assessing Ms. Mercy’s needs, the nurse must consider the various determinants of health specific to Ms. Mercy. Identify the main determinant of health and two other determinants relevant in this situation.

a) ____________________
b) ____________________
c) ____________________

 

45. The nurse wants to address the issue of the physical environment in which Ms. Mercy and her son are living. The nurse discusses with Ms. Mercy various ways to foster a healthy environment. Identify two priority aspects on which it is possible to take action in Ms. Mercy’s situation.

a) ___________________
b) ___________________

 

 

CRNE Practice Questions
Answers and Rationale

 

44) For three points, list 3 of the following:

- income and list any 2 of the following:
– support network
– physical environment
– lifestyle
– gender
– healthy development of child

Rationale: income is the most important determinant because it influences the other determinants. The emotional, informational, and moral support network influences lifestyle and resource use. In the physical environment, pollutants and general lack of cleanliness have a harmful effect on health. Smoking has a harmful effect on the health of the mother, her family, and the fetus. Generally speaking, young women can find themselves in more difficult family and socioeconomic situations than men. Events that affect children before and during early childhood influence their health throughout their lives, hence the importance of healthy development.

 

45) For three points, list any 2 of the following answers:

- cleanliness of premisses
– second-hand smoke
– ventilation

Rationale: the physical environment includes the quality of air, water, soil, cleanliness, food, temperature, humidity, and wind. In this situation, it is important to reduce the unhealthy factors (e.g., dirt and poor ventilation) and control second-hand smoke.

 

After you reviewed your answers through its rationale, you can proceed to the next set of questions:

CRNE Practice Questions 46-48

 

go back to the previous set of questions:

CRNE Practice Questions 1-3

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CGFNS Exam Questions – Growth and Development (11-15)

Welcome to CGFNS Exam Questions – Growth and Development. After answering the questions, you can proceed to the next set:

CGFNS Exam Questions about Growth and Development (16-20)

 

Enjoy answering and I hope that our site: Nurse Certifications can somehow help you in your future examination.

Good Luck

 

11. Safety precautions the nurse should employ when radium that has been inserted in the vagina of a client is being removed include:

a. Handling the radium carefully wearing foil-lined rubber gloves
b. Cleaning radium carefully in ether or alcohol
c. Charting the date and hour of removal and the total time of treatment
d. Ensuring that long forceps are available for use

 

12. Which of the following symptoms is the earliest indication of an adverse drug reaction in an elderly client?

a. Extended sleep periods
b. Mental status change
c. Increased appetite
d. Constipation

 

13. The nurse is aware that that the toy that would be most appropriate for a 3-year-old would be a:

a. Fuzzy stuffed animal
b. Seven-piece jigsaw puzzle
c. Lunch box filled with plastic figures
d. Blunt scissors and pictures to cut out

 

14. After teaching a mother about the appropriate play for an 8-month-old infant, the nurse is aware that the mother needs additional teaching when the mother states that she will buy:

a. Stuffed animal
b. Play telephone
c. Hanging mobile
d. Book with textures

 

15. While caring for a 6-month-old infant, t is likely that the nurse will observe the presence of the reflex called:

a. Startle
b. Babinski
c. Extrusion
d. Tonic neck

 

 

CGFNS Exam Questions
Answers and Rationale

 

11) D
– Radium must be handed with long handle forceps because distance help limit exposure. (a) Do not provide adequate shielding from the gamma rays emitted by the radium implant. (b) The nurse is not responsible for cleaning radium implant. (c) The amount of duration of exposure are important in assessing the effects on the client, however, this will not effect safety during removal of the implant.

 

12) B
– mental status change is the earliest symptom to appear with drug reactions in the aged.

 

13) C
– a child at this age loves to collect and manipulate; this meets the need to develop fine motor skills. Option A is appropriate for older infant. Option B would be frustrating for this child’s developmental level. Option D, the child is too young for scissors and fragile toys.

 

14) B
– this inappropriate for an 8-month-old; this is appropriate for a toddler to promote imitative play. Option A promotes manipulative play. Option C promotes visual stimulation. Option D promotes tactile stimulation and touch discrimination.

 

15) B
– the Babinski reflex, present at birth, should remain positive throughout the first 12 months of life. Other options are present at birth and disappear by 4 months of age.

 

For more CGFNS Exams, you can visit this site:

Commission on Graduates of Foreign Nursing Schools

 

Or go back to the first set of questions:

CGFNS Exam Questions – Growth and Development (1-5)

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Fundamental NCLEX Questions (41-45)

Welcome to Fundamental NCLEX Questions. Before you begin answering the questions, you may first want to take a peek about the material that will surely help you the pass the NCLEX examination :

Complete NCLEX Study Materials

Enjoy answering and I hope that Nurse Certifications can somehow help you in your future examination. Good Luck

 

41. A nurse finds that the client’s serum sodium level is 129 mEq/L. Which does the nurse implement to restore the client’s fluid and electrolyte balance gradually?

a) administer a loop diuretic
b) provide a 2-gram sodium diet
c) provide a 4-gram sodium diet
d) place client on fluid restriction

 

42. A nurse is caring for a client with a nursing diagnosis of impaired oral mucous membranes. The nurse would avoid using which of the following items when giving mouth care to this client?

a) lip moistener
b) soft toothbrush
c) lemon-glycerin swabs
d) nonalcoholic mouthwash

 

43. A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular (IM) injection to a 2-year old child. The best site to select for the injection is the:

a) deltoid muscle
b) dorsal gluteal muscle
c) vastus lateralis muscle
d) vetral gluteal muscle

 

44. The nurse instructs a 60-year old client about performing breast self-examination (BSE). Which client statement indicates a need for further instruction?

a) I don’t need to do that at my age
b) I examine my breasts in the shower
c) I lie on my back to examine my breasts
d) I do BSE on the first day of every month

 

45. The nurse notes redness, warmth, and purulent drainage at he insertion site of a central venous catheter (CVC) in a client receiving parenteral nutrition (PN). The nurse collaborates with the provider about this finding because:

a) the client is not tolerating the PN solution
b) the CVC is infiltrated and should be stopped
c) the client is allergic to the dressing material
d) infections of a CVC site can lead to septicemia

 

 

Fundamental NCLEX Questions
Answers and Rationale

 

41) D
– A serum sodium level of less than 135 mEq/L means that the client is hyponatremic; when it is due to hypervolemia, hyponatremia is the result of hemodilution. Thus, a fluid restriction is indicated to restore fluid and electrolyte balance gradually by increasing the relative serum sodium level as the client excretes water. Option A is unlikely to restore fluid and electrolyte balance because loop diuretics excrete sodium and water; in addition, the fluid shifts are likely to occur within hours instead of gradually. A 2-gram sodium diet is a sodium-restricted diet and a 4-gram sodium diet is a no-added-salt diet; both diets are unlikely to increase the serum sodium.

 

42) C
– The nurse avoids using lemon-glycerin swabs for the client with impaired oral mucous membranes because they dry the membranes further and could cause pain. Items that are helpful include a soft toothbrush to prevent trauma, lip moistener to prevent lip cracking, and soothing cleansing rinses, such as nonalcoholic mouthwash or a saline and hydrogen peroxide mixture.

 

43) C
– The vastus lateralis muscle, located on the anterior thigh, is well developed at birth. It is the best muscle for an IM injection for all age groups because it is able to tolerate larger volumes and is not located near vital structures such as nerves and blood vessels; as well, the vastus lateralis should always be used in children younger than 3 years of age. The deltoid is a much smaller muscle in a 2-year-old and child, which increases the risk of injury. The dorsal and ventral gluteal muscles are also less developed than the vastus lateralis muscle and thus increase the risk of injury to adjacent structures and nerves.

 

44) A
– Women should continue to perform BSE on a regular schedule after menopause because breast cancer occurs in all age groups. Although the risk of breast cancer increases with age, malignant breast tumors in older clients are less aggressive than tumors in young breast cancer clients. Options B, C, and D identify correct components of performing BSE for a 60-year-old client.

 

45) D
– Redness, warmth, and purulent drainage are signs of an infection, not an indication of intolerance to the solution or an allergic reaction. All clients who have an infected IV insertion site are at risk of septicemia because the potential source of the infection is already in a vessel. Additionally, clients with a CVC are at high risk for septicemia because the CVC is very close to the heart. Infiltration of a CVC is unlikely because the catheters are usually threaded into the vena cava or right atrium; besides, the surrounding tissue is more likely to become cool and pale with infiltration.

 

After you reviewed your answers through its rationale, you can proceed to the next set of questions:

Fundamental NCLEX Questions (46-50)

 

or you can go back and start from the beginning:

Fundamental NCLEX Questions (1-5)

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CRNE Practice Questions (61-65)

Welcome to CRNE Practice Questions  Multiple Choice. Before you begin answering this questions, I recommend that you read this special offer that will surely help you to pass your Canadian Registered Nurse Examination:

CRNE Exam Prep Guide

Enjoy answering and I hope that this site: Nurse Certifications can somehow help you in your future nursing licensure examination. Good Luck.

 

61. Research has shown that the vast majority of young Canadian below the age of 18 who skateboard wear no protective equipment. What would be the most effective strategy a community health nurse could use to decrease the incidence of accidental injuries in this population?

a) involve a group of adolescents in creating a video that promotes the use of protective gear for skateboards
b) lobby government to create a law that makes wearing protective gear mandatory for skateboarders
c) lecture to groups of school-age children and adolescents on the importance of wearing protective gear when skateboarding
d) develop an information pamphlet for parents describing the risks of skateboarding and the importance of protective gear

 

62. CRNE Practice Questions about the parents of Antoine, 4 years old, arrive in the emergency department in the middle of the night. Antoine had woken up complaining of a sore throat. His parents state that he has a fever, is drooling and his voice is odd. The nurse also observes stridor on respiration, a barking cough, and hoarseness. Which one of the following intervention should the nurse perform as a priority?

a) immediately perform a visual examination of Antoine’s mouth and throat
b) prepare a high-humidity croupette
c) place Antoine in the supine position while waiting for the physician
d) perform a throat culture

 

63. Melanie, 15 year old, is in the third trimester of her pregnancy. During a routine visit, she tells the nurse that she is fed up with getting urinary tract infections. What should the nurse say to help Melanie understand the changes occurring at her body?

a) I know it’s not pleasant. I’m going to teach you Kegel exercises to help control the infection
b) infections are part of the inconveniences of pregnancy, especially in young girls of your age, it’s related to hormone changes
c) it is unpleasant inconvenience caused by changes in the way kidneys work
d) I understand. This is caused by the decrease in sugar in the urine

 

64. CRNE Practice Questions about Mr. Jacobs, 53 years old, was admitted to the hospital because of chest pains. His condition has deteriorated, and he develops crackles in his lower lobes of the lungs. He is feeling short of breath and anxious. The physician orders morphine sulphate (Morphine) 4mg IV and furosemide (lasix) 40mg IV. Which of the following changes in the condition best indicates that Mr. Jacobs is responding favourably to the medications?

a) decreased respiratory rate, decreased crackles
b) decreased crackles, large diuresis
c) increased pulse, increased respiratory rate
d) decreased respiratory rate, decreased blood pressure

 

65. The nurse is developing a workshop on teenage pregnancy for school children from 12 to 14 years of age. What is the best way to gather information for the presentation?

a) asks parents what they think teenagers should know about pregnancy
b) do an internet search of websites for pregnant teenagers
c) conduct a literature review of research on teenage pregnancy
d) conduct other nurses who work with pregnant teenagers

 

 

CRNE Practice Questions
Answers and Rationale

 

61) A – Correct
Rationale: the active format of participatory learning is most appropriate for adolescents. Teenagers enjoy working with technology and can create material that is tailored to their peer group

B – Incorrect
Rationale: this long-term strategy does not deal with the issue of young people needing to value the use of protective gear. It is more effective to educate than legislate

C – Incorrect
Rationale: this teaching strategy (sitting and listening to a lecture) is not the most effective strategy for dealing with the problem of risk-taking behaviour in the target population

D – Incorrect
Rationale: this teaching strategy is not geared to the target population of school-age children and adolescents. Parents may understand the importance of the equipment, and provide their children with it, but they may not be able to enforce its use

 

62) B – Correct
CRNE Practice Questions Rationale: the priority intervention in this case consists of maintaining airway patency. The cool mist humidifier and supplemental oxygen are required. The child can be placed under a croupette

A – Incorrect
Rationale: this examination is contraindicated because there is a risk it might trigger a laryngeal spasm

C – Incorrect
Rationale: this position is contraindicated because it might interfere with the working of the diaphragm and give the child a feeling of smothered

D – Incorrect
Rationale: this examination is contraindicated because there is a risk it might trigger a laryngeal spasm

 

63) C – Correct
CRNE Practice Questions Rationale: this is an appropriate comment by the nurse, followed by a correct explanation of the phenomenon at work

A – Incorrect
Rationale: this response displays empathy; however, Kegel exercises are not for controlling and preventing urinary tract infections

B – Incorrect
Rationale: this response suggests a value judgement on the nurse’s part. Moreover, the number of urinary tract infections is not related to the age of the pregnant woman

D – Incorrect
Rationale: the information being given by the nurse is incorrect. Among 20% of women, there is an increase in the presence of glucose in the urine during pregnancy

 

64) B – Correct
CRNE Practice Questions Rationale: morphine sulfate causes vasodilation and pooling of blood in peripheral blood vessels. Lasix causes diuresis which would decrease lung congestion. The combined effects of these medications produce the desired outcomes of improved oxygenation and decreased lung congestion

A – Incorrect
Rationale: morphine will reduce dyspnea and anxiety, reduce pulmonary capillary pressure and decrease seepage of fluid into the alveoli. It ill decrease the respiratory rate, but this is not a desired effect

C – Incorrect
Rationale: these are not the desired effects of the medications. The pulse rate may go up or down depending on the circulatory volume status of the client and the level of anxiety. The respiratory rate may decrease as a result of the respiratory depression or improvement of dyspnea or reduction in anxiety

D – Incorrect
Rationale: these are side effects of the medications. The blood pressure may not change or may increase or decrease depending on the circulatory volume status of the client and the level of anxiety

 

65) C – Correct
Rationale: clinical decisions should be made on the basis of evidence-based practice

A – Incorrect
Rationale: parents may not know all of the facts about the needs of this age group

B – Incorrect
Rationale: websites that are not regulated can have inaccurate information

D – Incorrect
Rationale: the nurse might receive incomplete information, as evidence-based practice is not used in all care settings

 

After you reviewed your answers through its rationale, you can proceed to the next set of questions:

CRNE Practice Questions (66-70)

 

or start from the beginning:

CRNE Practice Questions (1-3)

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cgfns.org Questions: Management of Care (11-15)

Welcome to Nursing Test Banks: CGFNS Management of Care. After answering the questions, you can proceed to the next set:

cgfns.org questions about Management of Care

Enjoy answering and I hope that our site: Nurse Certifications can somehow help you in your future examination. Good Luck

 

11. The nursing diagnosis that is most appropriate for children with lead poisoning is:

a. Risk for injury
b. Chronic pain
c. Altered nutrition
d. Unilateral neglect

 

12. When the nurse is charting by exception in the client’s medical record, which of the following statement should the nurse record?

a. Client ambulated to bathroom without difficulty as before
b. Client reports pressure in chest when ambulating to bathroom
c. Five of client’s family members visiting at bedside this PM
d. Social worker in to discuss nursing home placement with family

 

13. Before a 4-year-old child with a new colostomy is discharged, the nurse prepares a teaching plan for the parents that include telling them that:

a. An enterostomal therapist is available to assist with home care
b. They should try correcting the child’s poor eating habits at mealtime
c. Fluids should be limited between meals, although permitted at meals
d. The child should not take part in physical education when attending school

 

14. When the nurse prepares to draw up 2 units of short-acting insulin and 3 units of long-acting insulin in the same syringe, the nurse should:

a. Inject air in the vial with the long-acting insulin first
b. Draw up the clear insulin first
c. Draw up either insulin first
d. Use a high-does insulin syringe

 

15. The parents of an infant with cerebral palsy should be taught to:

a. Focus on cognitive rather than motor skills
b. Preserve muscle tone to prevent contractures
c. Maintain prolonged immobility of limbs with splints
d. Encourage strenuous exercise to build the infant’s muscle

 

 

cgfns.org Questions:
Answers and Rationale

 

11) A
– this is related to lead toxicity or buildup that causes fluid shifts into brain tissue, producing cell ischemia and destruction; this ultimately results in convulsions, mental retardation and death.

 

12) B
– chest pressure always needs to be noted, as well as activity. Option 1 is not necessary to document, if already charted previously. Visitors at the bedside may or may not be important to record. The social worker records his or her own visit and interaction with the client/family.

 

13) A
– colostomy care may seem overwhelming to the parents, and it may reassure them to know that a therapist is available. Increased fluids are often needed to compensate for fecal fluid loss. Physical activity will probably not be limited.

 

14) A
– the air is injected into the long-acting insulin first. Air is then injected into the short-acting insulin is withdrawn. Then the long-acting insulin is withdrawn. It doe matter which insulin is drawn up first, because the nurse does not want to contaminate the short acting insulin with the long-acting insulin. A low-dose insulin syringe is used because a total of 5 units of insulin is needed.

 

15) B
– children with cerebral palsy are especially prone to muscle tone disorders, including spasticity, which can lead to contractures. In a therapeutic regimen there must be a balance between exercise and rest.

 

After you reviewed your answers through its rationale, you can start from the beginning:

cgfns.org Questions: Management of Care (1-5)

 

For more CGFNS Exams, you can visit this site:

Commission on Graduates of Foreign Nursing Schools

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Fundamental NCLEX Questions (36-40)

Welcome to Fundamental NCLEX Questions. Before you begin answering the questions, you may first want to take a peek about the material that will surely help you the pass the NCLEX examination :

Complete NCLEX Study Materials

Enjoy answering and I hope that Nurse Certifications can somehow help you in your future examination. Good Luck

 

36. The nurse administers a continuous tube feeding to a client. Which should the nurse implement as routine care for this client?

a) check the residual in the stomach every 4 hours
b) change the feeding bag and tubing every 48 hours
c) withhold the feeding if residual is greater than 200 ml
d) leave at least 25 ml of formula in the feeding bag when adding additional formula to the bag

 

37. A client receiving parenteral nutrition (PN) through a subclavian catheter suddenly develops dyspnea, tachycardia, cyanosis, and decreased level of consciousness. Which is the best intervention for the nurse to implement for the client?

a) turn to left side in trendelenburg’s position
b) obtain a start oxygen saturation level
c) examine the insertion site for redness
d) perform a start fingerstick glucose level

 

38. The nurse assesses a client with a triple-lumen catheter. Which is the nurse most likely to observe in a client with an air embolism?

a) bilateral basilar crackles
b) diminished breath sounds
c) systolic click at right sternal border
d) churning sound over right ventricle

 

39. When administering an intramuscular injection in the dorsogluteal muscle, the nurse places the client in which position to relax the muscle?

a) standing at the bedside
b) prone with a toe-in position
c) side-lying with a toe-in position
d) lateral while flexing the lower most leg

 

40. The nurse prepares to administer an intravenous (IV) medication when the nurse notes that the medication is incompatible with the IV solution. Which is the best intervention for the nurse to implement for safe medication administration?

a) ask the provider to prescribe a compatible IV solution
b) start a new IV catheter for the incompatible medication
c) collaborate with provider for a new administration route
d) flush tubing before and after the medication with normal saline

 

 

Fundamental NCLEX Questions
Answers and Rationale

 

36) A
– The residual volume is checked at least every 4 hours during continuous tube feedings and before intermittent feedings and medications. If the residual exceeds 100 mL (or the volume determined by agency policy), the nurse withholds the feeding to reduce the risk of aspiration. The bag and tubing are replaced every 24 hours, and the bag should be rinsed before adding new formula to reduce the risk of infection.

 

37) A
– Clinical indicators of air embolism include chest pain, tachycardia, dyspnea, anxiety, feelings of impending doom, cyanosis, and hypotension. Positioning the client in Trendelenburg’s and on the left side helps to isolate the air embolism in the right atrium and prevent a thromboembolic event in a vital organ. Monitoring the oxygen saturation is a reasonable nursing response to the client’s condition; however, acting to prevent a deterioration in the client’s condition is more important than obtaining additional client data. Options 3 and 4 are unrelated to the symptoms identified in the question.

 

38) D
– Clients with triple-lumen catheters are at risk for air embolism. Because an air embolism can be fatal, the nurse monitors for chest pain, coughing, hypotension, cyanosis, and hypoxia. In addition, if the client does have an air embolism, auscultation over the right ventricle may reveal a “churning” sound indicating the location of the embolism. Options A, B, and C are uncharacteristic of an air embolism.

 

39) B
– A prone toe-in position promotes internal rotation of the hip, relaxes the muscle, and makes the injection less painful. The client can also be positioned on the side with the top leg flexed and in front of the lower leg. Options A, C, and D are incorrect positions for administering an intramuscular injection because they do not promote muscle relaxation.

 

40) D
– When giving a medication intravenously, if the medication is incompatible with the IV solution, the tubing is flushed before and after the medication with infusions of normal saline to prevent in-line precipitation of the incompatible agents. Starting a new IV, changing the solution, or changing the administration route are unnecessary because a simpler, less risky, viable option exists.

 

After you reviewed your answers through its rationale, you can proceed to the next set of questions:

Fundamental NCLEX Questions (41-45)

 

or you can go back and start from the beginning:

Fundamental NCLEX Questions (1-5)

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CRNE Questions 41-43

Welcome to CRNE Questions. Before you begin answering, I recommend that you read this special offer that will surely help you to pass your Canadian Registered Nurse Examination:

CRNE Exam Prep Guide

Enjoy answering and I hope that this site: Nurse Certifications can somehow help you in your future nursing licensure examination. Good Luck.

 

Scenario: Mrs. Bouchard, 61 years old, presents at the emergency department concerned that she urinates often, in small amounts, and that she experiences pain when urinating. Her temperature is 38C. Mrs. Bouchard states her urine has been an orange-red colour for the past 2 days.

41. What is the appropriate term to describe pain during urination?

a) ___________________

 

42. Identify two possible causes for the colour of the urine

a) ____________________
b) ____________________

 

43. Mrs. Bouchard leaves the hospital with a prescription for antibiotics to treat her urinary infection. Identify three interventions the nurse can advise the client to carry out in order to promote normal urinary elimination

a) ____________________
b) ____________________
c) ____________________

 

 

CRNE Questions
Answers and Rationale

 

41) For three points, list the following answer:

- dysuria

Rationale: dysuria is painful or difficult urination that could be caused by bladder inflammation, trauma, or urethral sphincter inflammation

 

42) For 3 points, list any two of the following answers:

- consumption of new products
– consumption of new medications
– consumption of new foods
– colouring agent in ingested products
– dehydration (concentrated urine)
– hematuria

Rationale: some medications, foods, and products may colour urine. Taking over-the-counter medications or contact with cleaning solvents, pesticides, or other nephrotoxic agents may change the colour of urine. Urine becomes darker when it is concentrated as a result of dehydration as well as when blood is present (hematuria).

 

43) For three points, list any 3 of the following answers:

- good hygiene of the perineal area
– sufficient fluid intake (i.e, 6-8 glasses of water)
– maintenance of urinary habits (i.e., regular time for complete voiding of the bladder, sitting position for woman)
– drug therapy in compliance with the prescription
– avoid consuming irritating products (e.g., caffeine, alcohol, lemon juice, spicy products)
– avoid bubble baths (e.g., irritating soaps, powders in the perineal area)
– wear cotton underwear (avoid tight-fitting clothing around the thighs)
– consume acidify foods (e.g., cranberry juice)
– report a recurrence or ineffective treatment)

Rationale:

  • good hygiene prevents urinary infections
  • fluid intake of 2,000 to 2,500 ml (6-8 glasses of water) dilutes the urine and promotes regular urination, thereby ridding the urethra of microorganisms
  • good urination habits promote urine elimination as well as the complete voiding of the bladder, preventing a recurrence
  • taking antibiotics in compliance with the prescription is essential for treating the infection, since microorganisms may still be present even after the symptoms have disappeared
  • lemon juice, caffeine, spicy products and alcohol are also irritants
  • bubble baths, irritating soaps, and other similar products are possible sources of bladder irritants as they can change the pH
  • tight underwear or underwear made of synthetic material retain moisture, thereby encouraging bacteria growth
  • some foods increase urine acidity, which helps prevent bacteria forming
  • by reporting a recurrence, ineffective treatment can be corrected

 

After you reviewed your answers through its rationale, you can proceed to the next set of questions:

CRNE Questions 44-45

 

go back to the previous set of questions:

CRNE Questions 1-3

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