CGFNS Exam Questions – Growth and Development (11-15)

Welcome to CGFNS Exam Questions – Growth and Development. After answering the questions, you can proceed to the next set:

CGFNS Exam Questions about Growth and Development (16-20)

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11. Safety precautions the nurse should employ when radium that has been inserted in the vagina of a client is being removed include:

a. Handling the radium carefully wearing foil-lined rubber gloves
b. Cleaning radium carefully in ether or alcohol
c. Charting the date and hour of removal and the total time of treatment
d. Ensuring that long forceps are available for use

12. Which of the following symptoms is the earliest indication of an adverse drug reaction in an elderly client?

a. Extended sleep periods
b. Mental status change
c. Increased appetite
d. Constipation

13. The nurse is aware that that the toy that would be most appropriate for a 3-year-old would be a:

a. Fuzzy stuffed animal
b. Seven-piece jigsaw puzzle
c. Lunch box filled with plastic figures
d. Blunt scissors and pictures to cut out

14. After teaching a mother about the appropriate play for an 8-month-old infant, the nurse is aware that the mother needs additional teaching when the mother states that she will buy:

a. Stuffed animal
b. Play telephone
c. Hanging mobile
d. Book with textures

15. While caring for a 6-month-old infant, t is likely that the nurse will observe the presence of the reflex called:

a. Startle
b. Babinski
c. Extrusion
d. Tonic neck

CGFNS Exam Questions
Answers and Rationale

11) D
- Radium must be handed with long handle forceps because distance help limit exposure. (a) Do not provide adequate shielding from the gamma rays emitted by the radium implant. (b) The nurse is not responsible for cleaning radium implant. (c) The amount of duration of exposure are important in assessing the effects on the client, however, this will not effect safety during removal of the implant.

12) B
- mental status change is the earliest symptom to appear with drug reactions in the aged.

13) C
- a child at this age loves to collect and manipulate; this meets the need to develop fine motor skills. Option A is appropriate for older infant. Option B would be frustrating for this child’s developmental level. Option D, the child is too young for scissors and fragile toys.

14) B
- this inappropriate for an 8-month-old; this is appropriate for a toddler to promote imitative play. Option A promotes manipulative play. Option C promotes visual stimulation. Option D promotes tactile stimulation and touch discrimination.

15) B
- the Babinski reflex, present at birth, should remain positive throughout the first 12 months of life. Other options are present at birth and disappear by 4 months of age.

For more CGFNS Exams, you can visit this site:

Commission on Graduates of Foreign Nursing Schools

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CGFNS Exam Questions – Growth and Development (1-5)

Fundamental NCLEX Questions (41-45)

Welcome to Fundamental NCLEX Questions. Before you begin answering the questions, you may first want to take a peek about the material that will surely help you the pass the NCLEX examination :

Complete NCLEX Study Materials

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41. A nurse finds that the client’s serum sodium level is 129 mEq/L. Which does the nurse implement to restore the client’s fluid and electrolyte balance gradually?

a) administer a loop diuretic
b) provide a 2-gram sodium diet
c) provide a 4-gram sodium diet
d) place client on fluid restriction

42. A nurse is caring for a client with a nursing diagnosis of impaired oral mucous membranes. The nurse would avoid using which of the following items when giving mouth care to this client?

a) lip moistener
b) soft toothbrush
c) lemon-glycerin swabs
d) nonalcoholic mouthwash

43. A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular (IM) injection to a 2-year old child. The best site to select for the injection is the:

a) deltoid muscle
b) dorsal gluteal muscle
c) vastus lateralis muscle
d) vetral gluteal muscle

44. The nurse instructs a 60-year old client about performing breast self-examination (BSE). Which client statement indicates a need for further instruction?

a) I don’t need to do that at my age
b) I examine my breasts in the shower
c) I lie on my back to examine my breasts
d) I do BSE on the first day of every month

45. The nurse notes redness, warmth, and purulent drainage at he insertion site of a central venous catheter (CVC) in a client receiving parenteral nutrition (PN). The nurse collaborates with the provider about this finding because:

a) the client is not tolerating the PN solution
b) the CVC is infiltrated and should be stopped
c) the client is allergic to the dressing material
d) infections of a CVC site can lead to septicemia

Fundamental NCLEX Questions
Answers and Rationale

41) D
- A serum sodium level of less than 135 mEq/L means that the client is hyponatremic; when it is due to hypervolemia, hyponatremia is the result of hemodilution. Thus, a fluid restriction is indicated to restore fluid and electrolyte balance gradually by increasing the relative serum sodium level as the client excretes water. Option A is unlikely to restore fluid and electrolyte balance because loop diuretics excrete sodium and water; in addition, the fluid shifts are likely to occur within hours instead of gradually. A 2-gram sodium diet is a sodium-restricted diet and a 4-gram sodium diet is a no-added-salt diet; both diets are unlikely to increase the serum sodium.

42) C
- The nurse avoids using lemon-glycerin swabs for the client with impaired oral mucous membranes because they dry the membranes further and could cause pain. Items that are helpful include a soft toothbrush to prevent trauma, lip moistener to prevent lip cracking, and soothing cleansing rinses, such as nonalcoholic mouthwash or a saline and hydrogen peroxide mixture.

43) C
- The vastus lateralis muscle, located on the anterior thigh, is well developed at birth. It is the best muscle for an IM injection for all age groups because it is able to tolerate larger volumes and is not located near vital structures such as nerves and blood vessels; as well, the vastus lateralis should always be used in children younger than 3 years of age. The deltoid is a much smaller muscle in a 2-year-old and child, which increases the risk of injury. The dorsal and ventral gluteal muscles are also less developed than the vastus lateralis muscle and thus increase the risk of injury to adjacent structures and nerves.

44) A
- Women should continue to perform BSE on a regular schedule after menopause because breast cancer occurs in all age groups. Although the risk of breast cancer increases with age, malignant breast tumors in older clients are less aggressive than tumors in young breast cancer clients. Options B, C, and D identify correct components of performing BSE for a 60-year-old client.

45) D
- Redness, warmth, and purulent drainage are signs of an infection, not an indication of intolerance to the solution or an allergic reaction. All clients who have an infected IV insertion site are at risk of septicemia because the potential source of the infection is already in a vessel. Additionally, clients with a CVC are at high risk for septicemia because the CVC is very close to the heart. Infiltration of a CVC is unlikely because the catheters are usually threaded into the vena cava or right atrium; besides, the surrounding tissue is more likely to become cool and pale with infiltration.

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Fundamental NCLEX Questions (46-50)

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Fundamental NCLEX Questions (1-5)

CRNE Practice Questions (61-65)

Welcome to CRNE Practice Questions  Multiple Choice. Before you begin answering this questions, I recommend that you read this special offer that will surely help you to pass your Canadian Registered Nurse Examination:

CRNE Exam Prep Guide

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61. Research has shown that the vast majority of young Canadian below the age of 18 who skateboard wear no protective equipment. What would be the most effective strategy a community health nurse could use to decrease the incidence of accidental injuries in this population?

a) involve a group of adolescents in creating a video that promotes the use of protective gear for skateboards
b) lobby government to create a law that makes wearing protective gear mandatory for skateboarders
c) lecture to groups of school-age children and adolescents on the importance of wearing protective gear when skateboarding
d) develop an information pamphlet for parents describing the risks of skateboarding and the importance of protective gear

62. CRNE Practice Questions about the parents of Antoine, 4 years old, arrive in the emergency department in the middle of the night. Antoine had woken up complaining of a sore throat. His parents state that he has a fever, is drooling and his voice is odd. The nurse also observes stridor on respiration, a barking cough, and hoarseness. Which one of the following intervention should the nurse perform as a priority?

a) immediately perform a visual examination of Antoine’s mouth and throat
b) prepare a high-humidity croupette
c) place Antoine in the supine position while waiting for the physician
d) perform a throat culture

63. Melanie, 15 year old, is in the third trimester of her pregnancy. During a routine visit, she tells the nurse that she is fed up with getting urinary tract infections. What should the nurse say to help Melanie understand the changes occurring at her body?

a) I know it’s not pleasant. I’m going to teach you Kegel exercises to help control the infection
b) infections are part of the inconveniences of pregnancy, especially in young girls of your age, it’s related to hormone changes
c) it is unpleasant inconvenience caused by changes in the way kidneys work
d) I understand. This is caused by the decrease in sugar in the urine

64. CRNE Practice Questions about Mr. Jacobs, 53 years old, was admitted to the hospital because of chest pains. His condition has deteriorated, and he develops crackles in his lower lobes of the lungs. He is feeling short of breath and anxious. The physician orders morphine sulphate (Morphine) 4mg IV and furosemide (lasix) 40mg IV. Which of the following changes in the condition best indicates that Mr. Jacobs is responding favourably to the medications?

a) decreased respiratory rate, decreased crackles
b) decreased crackles, large diuresis
c) increased pulse, increased respiratory rate
d) decreased respiratory rate, decreased blood pressure

65. The nurse is developing a workshop on teenage pregnancy for school children from 12 to 14 years of age. What is the best way to gather information for the presentation?

a) asks parents what they think teenagers should know about pregnancy
b) do an internet search of websites for pregnant teenagers
c) conduct a literature review of research on teenage pregnancy
d) conduct other nurses who work with pregnant teenagers

CRNE Practice Questions
Answers and Rationale

61) A – Correct
Rationale: the active format of participatory learning is most appropriate for adolescents. Teenagers enjoy working with technology and can create material that is tailored to their peer group

B – Incorrect
Rationale: this long-term strategy does not deal with the issue of young people needing to value the use of protective gear. It is more effective to educate than legislate

C – Incorrect
Rationale: this teaching strategy (sitting and listening to a lecture) is not the most effective strategy for dealing with the problem of risk-taking behaviour in the target population

D – Incorrect
Rationale: this teaching strategy is not geared to the target population of school-age children and adolescents. Parents may understand the importance of the equipment, and provide their children with it, but they may not be able to enforce its use

62) B – Correct
CRNE Practice Questions Rationale: the priority intervention in this case consists of maintaining airway patency. The cool mist humidifier and supplemental oxygen are required. The child can be placed under a croupette

A – Incorrect
Rationale: this examination is contraindicated because there is a risk it might trigger a laryngeal spasm

C – Incorrect
Rationale: this position is contraindicated because it might interfere with the working of the diaphragm and give the child a feeling of smothered

D – Incorrect
Rationale: this examination is contraindicated because there is a risk it might trigger a laryngeal spasm

63) C – Correct
CRNE Practice Questions Rationale: this is an appropriate comment by the nurse, followed by a correct explanation of the phenomenon at work

A – Incorrect
Rationale: this response displays empathy; however, Kegel exercises are not for controlling and preventing urinary tract infections

B – Incorrect
Rationale: this response suggests a value judgement on the nurse’s part. Moreover, the number of urinary tract infections is not related to the age of the pregnant woman

D – Incorrect
Rationale: the information being given by the nurse is incorrect. Among 20% of women, there is an increase in the presence of glucose in the urine during pregnancy

64) B – Correct
CRNE Practice Questions Rationale: morphine sulfate causes vasodilation and pooling of blood in peripheral blood vessels. Lasix causes diuresis which would decrease lung congestion. The combined effects of these medications produce the desired outcomes of improved oxygenation and decreased lung congestion

A – Incorrect
Rationale: morphine will reduce dyspnea and anxiety, reduce pulmonary capillary pressure and decrease seepage of fluid into the alveoli. It ill decrease the respiratory rate, but this is not a desired effect

C – Incorrect
Rationale: these are not the desired effects of the medications. The pulse rate may go up or down depending on the circulatory volume status of the client and the level of anxiety. The respiratory rate may decrease as a result of the respiratory depression or improvement of dyspnea or reduction in anxiety

D – Incorrect
Rationale: these are side effects of the medications. The blood pressure may not change or may increase or decrease depending on the circulatory volume status of the client and the level of anxiety

65) C – Correct
Rationale: clinical decisions should be made on the basis of evidence-based practice

A – Incorrect
Rationale: parents may not know all of the facts about the needs of this age group

B – Incorrect
Rationale: websites that are not regulated can have inaccurate information

D – Incorrect
Rationale: the nurse might receive incomplete information, as evidence-based practice is not used in all care settings

After you reviewed your answers through its rationale, you can proceed to the next set of questions:

CRNE Practice Questions (66-70)

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CRNE Practice Questions (1-3)

cgfns.org Questions: Management of Care (11-15)

Welcome to Nursing Test Banks: CGFNS Management of Care. After answering the questions, you can proceed to the next set:

cgfns.org questions about Management of Care

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11. The nursing diagnosis that is most appropriate for children with lead poisoning is:

a. Risk for injury
b. Chronic pain
c. Altered nutrition
d. Unilateral neglect

12. When the nurse is charting by exception in the client’s medical record, which of the following statement should the nurse record?

a. Client ambulated to bathroom without difficulty as before
b. Client reports pressure in chest when ambulating to bathroom
c. Five of client’s family members visiting at bedside this PM
d. Social worker in to discuss nursing home placement with family

13. Before a 4-year-old child with a new colostomy is discharged, the nurse prepares a teaching plan for the parents that include telling them that:

a. An enterostomal therapist is available to assist with home care
b. They should try correcting the child’s poor eating habits at mealtime
c. Fluids should be limited between meals, although permitted at meals
d. The child should not take part in physical education when attending school

14. When the nurse prepares to draw up 2 units of short-acting insulin and 3 units of long-acting insulin in the same syringe, the nurse should:

a. Inject air in the vial with the long-acting insulin first
b. Draw up the clear insulin first
c. Draw up either insulin first
d. Use a high-does insulin syringe

15. The parents of an infant with cerebral palsy should be taught to:

a. Focus on cognitive rather than motor skills
b. Preserve muscle tone to prevent contractures
c. Maintain prolonged immobility of limbs with splints
d. Encourage strenuous exercise to build the infant’s muscle

cgfns.org Questions:
Answers and Rationale

11) A
- this is related to lead toxicity or buildup that causes fluid shifts into brain tissue, producing cell ischemia and destruction; this ultimately results in convulsions, mental retardation and death.

12) B
- chest pressure always needs to be noted, as well as activity. Option 1 is not necessary to document, if already charted previously. Visitors at the bedside may or may not be important to record. The social worker records his or her own visit and interaction with the client/family.

13) A
- colostomy care may seem overwhelming to the parents, and it may reassure them to know that a therapist is available. Increased fluids are often needed to compensate for fecal fluid loss. Physical activity will probably not be limited.

14) A
- the air is injected into the long-acting insulin first. Air is then injected into the short-acting insulin is withdrawn. Then the long-acting insulin is withdrawn. It doe matter which insulin is drawn up first, because the nurse does not want to contaminate the short acting insulin with the long-acting insulin. A low-dose insulin syringe is used because a total of 5 units of insulin is needed.

15) B
- children with cerebral palsy are especially prone to muscle tone disorders, including spasticity, which can lead to contractures. In a therapeutic regimen there must be a balance between exercise and rest.

After you reviewed your answers through its rationale, you can start from the beginning:

cgfns.org Questions: Management of Care (1-5)

For more CGFNS Exams, you can visit this site:

Commission on Graduates of Foreign Nursing Schools

Fundamental NCLEX Questions (36-40)

Welcome to Fundamental NCLEX Questions. Before you begin answering the questions, you may first want to take a peek about the material that will surely help you the pass the NCLEX examination :

Complete NCLEX Study Materials

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36. The nurse administers a continuous tube feeding to a client. Which should the nurse implement as routine care for this client?

a) check the residual in the stomach every 4 hours
b) change the feeding bag and tubing every 48 hours
c) withhold the feeding if residual is greater than 200 ml
d) leave at least 25 ml of formula in the feeding bag when adding additional formula to the bag

37. A client receiving parenteral nutrition (PN) through a subclavian catheter suddenly develops dyspnea, tachycardia, cyanosis, and decreased level of consciousness. Which is the best intervention for the nurse to implement for the client?

a) turn to left side in trendelenburg’s position
b) obtain a start oxygen saturation level
c) examine the insertion site for redness
d) perform a start fingerstick glucose level

38. The nurse assesses a client with a triple-lumen catheter. Which is the nurse most likely to observe in a client with an air embolism?

a) bilateral basilar crackles
b) diminished breath sounds
c) systolic click at right sternal border
d) churning sound over right ventricle

39. When administering an intramuscular injection in the dorsogluteal muscle, the nurse places the client in which position to relax the muscle?

a) standing at the bedside
b) prone with a toe-in position
c) side-lying with a toe-in position
d) lateral while flexing the lower most leg

40. The nurse prepares to administer an intravenous (IV) medication when the nurse notes that the medication is incompatible with the IV solution. Which is the best intervention for the nurse to implement for safe medication administration?

a) ask the provider to prescribe a compatible IV solution
b) start a new IV catheter for the incompatible medication
c) collaborate with provider for a new administration route
d) flush tubing before and after the medication with normal saline

Fundamental NCLEX Questions
Answers and Rationale

36) A
- The residual volume is checked at least every 4 hours during continuous tube feedings and before intermittent feedings and medications. If the residual exceeds 100 mL (or the volume determined by agency policy), the nurse withholds the feeding to reduce the risk of aspiration. The bag and tubing are replaced every 24 hours, and the bag should be rinsed before adding new formula to reduce the risk of infection.

37) A
- Clinical indicators of air embolism include chest pain, tachycardia, dyspnea, anxiety, feelings of impending doom, cyanosis, and hypotension. Positioning the client in Trendelenburg’s and on the left side helps to isolate the air embolism in the right atrium and prevent a thromboembolic event in a vital organ. Monitoring the oxygen saturation is a reasonable nursing response to the client’s condition; however, acting to prevent a deterioration in the client’s condition is more important than obtaining additional client data. Options 3 and 4 are unrelated to the symptoms identified in the question.

38) D
- Clients with triple-lumen catheters are at risk for air embolism. Because an air embolism can be fatal, the nurse monitors for chest pain, coughing, hypotension, cyanosis, and hypoxia. In addition, if the client does have an air embolism, auscultation over the right ventricle may reveal a “churning” sound indicating the location of the embolism. Options A, B, and C are uncharacteristic of an air embolism.

39) B
- A prone toe-in position promotes internal rotation of the hip, relaxes the muscle, and makes the injection less painful. The client can also be positioned on the side with the top leg flexed and in front of the lower leg. Options A, C, and D are incorrect positions for administering an intramuscular injection because they do not promote muscle relaxation.

40) D
- When giving a medication intravenously, if the medication is incompatible with the IV solution, the tubing is flushed before and after the medication with infusions of normal saline to prevent in-line precipitation of the incompatible agents. Starting a new IV, changing the solution, or changing the administration route are unnecessary because a simpler, less risky, viable option exists.

After you reviewed your answers through its rationale, you can proceed to the next set of questions:

Fundamental NCLEX Questions (41-45)

or you can go back and start from the beginning:

Fundamental NCLEX Questions (1-5)

CRNE Questions 41-43

Welcome to CRNE Questions. Before you begin answering, I recommend that you read this special offer that will surely help you to pass your Canadian Registered Nurse Examination:

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Scenario: Mrs. Bouchard, 61 years old, presents at the emergency department concerned that she urinates often, in small amounts, and that she experiences pain when urinating. Her temperature is 38C. Mrs. Bouchard states her urine has been an orange-red colour for the past 2 days.

41. What is the appropriate term to describe pain during urination?

a) ___________________

42. Identify two possible causes for the colour of the urine

a) ____________________
b) ____________________

43. Mrs. Bouchard leaves the hospital with a prescription for antibiotics to treat her urinary infection. Identify three interventions the nurse can advise the client to carry out in order to promote normal urinary elimination

a) ____________________
b) ____________________
c) ____________________

CRNE Questions
Answers and Rationale

41) For three points, list the following answer:

- dysuria

Rationale: dysuria is painful or difficult urination that could be caused by bladder inflammation, trauma, or urethral sphincter inflammation

42) For 3 points, list any two of the following answers:

- consumption of new products
– consumption of new medications
– consumption of new foods
– colouring agent in ingested products
– dehydration (concentrated urine)
– hematuria

Rationale: some medications, foods, and products may colour urine. Taking over-the-counter medications or contact with cleaning solvents, pesticides, or other nephrotoxic agents may change the colour of urine. Urine becomes darker when it is concentrated as a result of dehydration as well as when blood is present (hematuria).

43) For three points, list any 3 of the following answers:

- good hygiene of the perineal area
– sufficient fluid intake (i.e, 6-8 glasses of water)
– maintenance of urinary habits (i.e., regular time for complete voiding of the bladder, sitting position for woman)
– drug therapy in compliance with the prescription
– avoid consuming irritating products (e.g., caffeine, alcohol, lemon juice, spicy products)
– avoid bubble baths (e.g., irritating soaps, powders in the perineal area)
– wear cotton underwear (avoid tight-fitting clothing around the thighs)
– consume acidify foods (e.g., cranberry juice)
– report a recurrence or ineffective treatment)

Rationale:

• good hygiene prevents urinary infections
• fluid intake of 2,000 to 2,500 ml (6-8 glasses of water) dilutes the urine and promotes regular urination, thereby ridding the urethra of microorganisms
• good urination habits promote urine elimination as well as the complete voiding of the bladder, preventing a recurrence
• taking antibiotics in compliance with the prescription is essential for treating the infection, since microorganisms may still be present even after the symptoms have disappeared
• lemon juice, caffeine, spicy products and alcohol are also irritants
• bubble baths, irritating soaps, and other similar products are possible sources of bladder irritants as they can change the pH
• tight underwear or underwear made of synthetic material retain moisture, thereby encouraging bacteria growth
• some foods increase urine acidity, which helps prevent bacteria forming
• by reporting a recurrence, ineffective treatment can be corrected

After you reviewed your answers through its rationale, you can proceed to the next set of questions:

CRNE Questions 44-45

go back to the previous set of questions:

CRNE Questions 1-3

cgfns.org Questions: Pharmacology and Parenteral Therapy (31-35)

Welcome to cgfns.org Questions about Pharmacology and Parenteral Therapy. After answering the questions, you can proceed to the next set:

cgfns.org Questions: Pharmacology and Parenteral Therapy

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31. A client states, “My stool have been really dark lately.” Which of the following medications has probably caused this change?

a. Ferrous sulfate
b. Calcium carbonate
c. Ranitidine
d. Folic acid

32. A client is brought to the emergency department after consuming an evening meal. The client’s tongue is swelling and obstructing the airway. The most appropriate therapy would be:

a. Oxygen via nasal cannula at 2L/minutes
b. Oxygen via humidified face masks at 100%
c. Oxygen via bag-valve mask at 100%
d. Oxygen via emergency tracheostomy at 100 %

33. A client is receiving ritodrine hydrochloride (Yutopar) IV. With the initiation of this drug, it is most important to assess for any adverse reactions that could affect:

a. Uterine function
b. Gastrointestinal function
c. Central nervous system function
d. Cardiac function

34. A client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus is instructed by the physician to obtain glucagon for emergency home use. The client asks a home care nurse about the purpose of the medication. The nurse instruct the client that the purpose of the medication is to treat:

a. Hypoglycemia from insulin overdose
b. Hyperglycemia from insufficient insulin
c. Lipoatrophy from insulin injections
d. Lipohypertrophy from inadequate insulin absorption

35. The nurse administers oral thyroid hormone to an infant with hypothyroidism. For which of the following signs of overdose should the nurse observe the infant?

a. Tachycardia, fever, irritability, and sweating
b. Bradycardia, cool skin temperature, and dry scaly skin
c. Bradycardia, fever, hypotension, and irritability
d. Tachycardia, cool skin temperature, and irritability

cgfns.org Questions
Answers and Rationale

31) A
- ferrous sulfate has caused the change. The iron salts present in oral ferrous sulfate are excreted into the stool, giving them a dark color. To prevent anxiety, clients should be informed that their stools are likely to be dark in color.

32) D
- oxygen via emergency tracheostomy at 100% is appropriate when treating airway obstruction. Some anaphylactic allergies may cause the tongue to swell. If airway obstruction occurs, the airway must be opened below the site of obstruction and oxygen delivered.

33) D
- the nurse should assess for adverse reactions affecting cardiac function. The administration of ritodrine hydrochloride is associated with cardiovascular side effects such as tachycardia, palpitations, premature ventricular contractions, and widening pulse pressure. These effects are the most important to assess since they may be life threatening.

34) A
- Glucagon is used to treat hypoglycemia resulting from insulin overdose. The family of the client is instructed in how to administer the medication in an unconscious client. Arousal usually occurs within 20 minutes of glucagons injection. Once consciousness has been regained, oral carbohydrates should be given. Lipoatrophy and lipohypertophy result from insulin injection

35) A
- the infant experiencing an overdose of thyroid replacement hormone exhibits tachycardia, fever, irritability, and seating. Bradycardia, cool skin temperature, and dry scaly skin are signs of hypothyroidism.

After you reviewed your answers through its rationale, you can start from the beginning:

cgfns.org Questions: Pharmacology and Parenteral Therapy (1-5)

For more CGFNS Exams, you can visit this site:

Commission on Graduates of Foreign Nursing Schools

Fundamental NCLEX Questions (31-35)

Fundamental NCLEX Questions (1-5) – Link if you want start from the beginning.

31. A nurse has administered approximately half of a high cleansing enema when the client complains of pain and cramping. Which nursing action is appropriate?

a) reassuring the client and continuing the flow
b) discontinuing the enema and notifying the physician
c) raising the enema bag so that the solution can be completed quickly
d) clamping the tubing for 30 seconds and restarting the flow at a slower rate

32. Which client position does the nurse use to administer a cleansing enema?

a) dorsal recumbent position
b) supine position with the legs elevated
c) left lateral position with flexed right knee
d) right lateral position with flexed left knee

33. A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent tube feeding through a nasogastric tube (NGT). The nurse assesses gastric residual volume before administering tube feeding to:

a) confirm proper NGT placement
b) determine the client’s nutritional status
c) assess client’s fluid and electrolyte status
d) evaluate the adequacy of gastric emptying

34. Before administering an intermittent tube feeding, the nurse aspirates 40 ml of undigested formula from the client’s nasogastric tube. Which should the nurse implement as a result of this finding?

a) discard the aspirate and record as client output
b) mix with new formula to administer the feeding
c) dilute with water and inject into the nasogastric tube
d) reinstill the aspirate through the nasogastric tube via gravity using syringe

35. The nurse prepares to teach a client to ambulate with a cane. Before teaching cane-assisted ambulation, the priority nursing assessment is to determine that the client has:

a) self-consciousness about using a cane
b) full range of motion in lower extremities
c) an adequate level of stamina and energy
d) balance, muscle strength, and confidence

Fundamental NCLEX Questions
Answers and Rationale

31) B
- The enema fluid should be administered slowly. If the client complains of pain or cramping, the flow is stopped for 30 seconds and restarted at a slower rate. Slow enema administration and stopping the flow temporarily, if necessary, will decrease the likelihood of intestinal spasm and premature ejection of the solution. The higher the solution container is held above the rectum, the faster the flow and the greater the force in the rectum. There is no need to discontinue the enema and notify the physician at this time.

32) C
- The sigmoid and descending colon are located on the left side. Therefore, the left lateral position uses gravity to facilitate the flow of solution into the sigmoid and descending colon. Acute flexion of the right leg allows for adequate exposure of the anus. Options A, B, and D are incorrect positions because they fail to adequately expose the anus or facilitate infusion of the enema solution.

33) D
- All stomach contents are aspirated and measured before administering a tube feeding to determine the gastric residual volume. If the stomach fails to empty and propel its contents forward, the tube feeding accumulates in the stomach and increases the client’s risk of aspiration. If the aspirated gastric contents exceed the predetermined limit, the nurse withholds the tube feeding and collaborates with the provider on a plan of care. Assessing residual does not confirm placement or assess fluid and electrolyte status. The nurse uses clinical indicators including serum albumin levels to determine the client’s nutritional status.

34) D
- After checking residual feeding contents, the nurse reinstills the gastric contents into the stomach by removing the syringe bulb or plunger and pouring the gastric contents via the syringe into the nasogastric tube. Gastric contents should be reinstilled (unless they exceed an amount of 100 mL or as defined by agency policy) in order to maintain the client’s fluid and electrolyte balance. The nurse avoids mixing gastric aspirate with fresh formula to prevent contamination. Because the gastric aspirate is a small volume, it should be reinstilled; however, mixing the formula with water can, also, disrupt the client’s fluid and electrolyte balance unless the nurse determines that the client is dehydrated.

35) D
- Assessing the client’s balance, strength, and confidence helps determine if the cane is a suitable assistive device for the client. Although body image (self-consciousness) is a component of the assessment, it is not the priority. Full range of motion and a high level of stamina are not needed for walking with a cane.

After you reviewed your answers through its rationale, you can proceed to the next set of questions:

Fundamental NCLEX Questions (36-40)

CRNE Questions (56-60)

Welcome to CRNE Questions  Multiple Choice. Before you begin answering this questions, I recommend that you read this special offer that will surely help you to pass your Canadian Registered Nurse Examination:

CRNE Exam Prep Guide

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56. Mrs. Lamothe, 35 years old, has a hysterectomy 24 hours ago. A patient-controlled analgesic pump was installed in the operating room. At 14:00, the nurse enters Mrs. Lamothe’s room and observes that she appears to be in pain and that she has not given herself any morphine since 08:00. Which one of the following statements by the nurse would help Mrs. Lamothe manage her pain?

a) I would like to help you. Are you comfortable with the pump as a way of relieving the pain?
b) don’t be afraid to press the button to relieve the pain. Has someone told you how the pump works?
c) you seem to be in pain; you should ease your pain by using the pump that was given to you
d) you look unwell; I fully respect your decision not to use the analgesic

57. Mr. Rodel, 34 years old, married and the father of tow children, is hospitalized for depression. Which one of the following replies should the nurse make when Mr. Rodel says, “My life is hopeless now. I can’t find the courage to go on”.

a) it is often by taking one step at a time that we succeed in overcoming our difficulties
b) what would help you regain your interest in life and help you to adapt?
c) you know, depression is now a treatable illness
d) what you are telling is that you no longer feel like living

58. In view of the increased incidence of prostate cancer among older Canadian men, which of the following topics would be important for the nurse to include in her presentation on health issues to group of male residents?

a) sign and symptoms of prostate cancer
b) screening practices for prostate cancer
c) treatment for prostate cancer
d) rising mortality rates of prostate cancer

59. Which approach by the nurse is most likely to facilitate the continuity and consistency of a client’s care?

a) coordinate regular client-focused conferences attended by relevant health team members
b) identify the client’s health care needs on behalf of all health team members
c) communicate individually with each team member
d) make decisions regarding the client’s care based on input from all health team members

60. Mr. Jonah, 67 years old, will soon be discharged home from the cardiac unit. He indicates that he is concerned about his discharge because his home situation can be stressful. What strategy should the nurse employ to help him cope with stressful situations?

a) encourage him to plan his daily activities
b) inform him that a nurse will visit him at home
c) reassure him that is normal and that he should just rest
d) have him practice a stress-reduction method that he has found effective

CRNE Questions
Answers and Rationale

56) A – Correct
Rationale: the nurse is trying to discover the reasons why the client is not using the pump. Clients may not be properly informed about the nature and risks of dependency and, therefore, might hesitate to give themselves analgesic

B – Incorrect
Rationale: the nurse is not helping Mrs. Lamothe, as the statement makes no attempt to understand the reasons why she is not using the pump. This assumes that Mrs. Lamothe does not know how to use the pump

C – Incorrect
Rationale: the nurse is not helping Mrs. Lamothe, as the statement makes no attempt to understand the reasons why she is not using the pump

D – Incorrect
Rationale: with this approach, the nurse is not helping Mrs. Lamothe manage her pain. Then nurse makes no attempt to understand the reasons why Mrs. Lamothe is not using the pump

57) D – Correct
Rationale: the nurse is validating the message received from Mr. Rodel and displaying empathy

A – Incorrect
Rationale: this is an obstacle to communication, as the nurse is belittling what Mr. Rodel is experiencing

B – Incorrect
Rationale: the nurse is not respecting Mr. Rodel’s pace and is providing false reassurance

C – Incorrect
Rationale: the nurse is reassuring Mr. Rodel and is not taking his emotions into account

58) B – Correct
Rationale: annual screening for prostate cancer by digital rectal exam and detection for elevated serum levels of prostate-specific antigen is recommended

A – Incorrect
Rationale: clinical manifestations occur late in the progression of prostate cancer. Early detection is possible through routine screening

C – Incorrect
Rationale: treatment information is appropriate for individuals who have received a diagnosis of prostate cancer

D – Incorrect
Rationale: this information may cause unnecessary fear in the group. There is evidence to show that many elderly men have some cancer cells in their prostate, yet the cancer does not lead to clinical disease

59) A – Correct
Rationale: multidiciplinary team conferences enable sharing of information and joint decision-making from which comprehensive care plans can be developed and reviewed

B – Incorrect
Rationale: identification of discipline specific health needs is the responsibility of the particular discipline

C – Incorrect
Rationale: client care can easily become fragmented when health team members communicate between themselves on an individual basis only, and not within the team

D – Incorrect
Rationale: the nurse is not responsible for making decisions for all health team members. This does not allow for joint decision-making

60) D – Correct
Rationale: having Mr. Jonah practice an effective stress reduction method in the hospital reinforces healthy coping strategies

A – Incorrect
Rationale: planning of daily activities may be an effective method of coping with stress. However, this is not the most effective strategy as it does not involve Mr. Jonah in selecting a stress-reduction method

B – Incorrect
Rationale: Mr. Jonah may be reassured by knowing that a nurse will visit him at home. However, this does not allow him to develop strategies to cope with stress

C – Incorrect
Rationale: although rest is desirable, the client needs to deal effectively with stress in order to allow for rest

After you reviewed your answers through its rationale, you can proceed to the next set of questions:

CRNE Questions (61-65)

or start from the beginning:

CRNE Questions (1-3)

cgfns.org Questions – Reduction of Risk Potential (36-40)

Welcome to  cgfns.org Questions. After answering the questions, you can proceed to the next set:

Reduction of Risk Potential Questions (41-45)

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Good Luck

36. A client has surgery to remove a stone from the common bile duct. The nurse is aware that the bile flow into the duodenum has been re-established after biliary surgery when:

a. The liver is no longer tender
b. Stools are normal brown in color
c. Colic is absent after ingestion of fats
d. The serum bilirubin level returns to normal

37. To help limit a common complication following the repair of an inguinal hernia, the nurse should:

a. Apply an abdominal binder
b. Place a support under the scrotum
c. Encourage a high-carbohydrate diet
d. Have the client cough and deep breathe frequently

38. A woman is admitted to the hospital for an elective cesarean birth. To prepare the client for surgery, the nurse:

a. Shaves the perineal area
b. Administers a tap water enema
c. Inserts an indwelling catheter
d. Assists the client with an antiseptic shower

39. When caring for a child with vitamin K deficiency, the nurse should be alert for which of the following sequelae?

a. Prolonged bleeding time
b. Visual disturbance
c. Anorexia
d. Fatigue

40. When counseling parents about lead poisoning prevention, the nurse should include which of the following in her teaching plan?

a. Dry cleaning techniques are helpful
b. Toys and pacifiers should be cleaned weekly
c. Water should be run for 5 minutes prior to use
d. Cold water should be used for consumption

cgfns.org Questions
Answers and Rationale

36) B
- the return of brown color to the stool indicates that bile is entering the duodenum and being converted to urobilinogen by bacteria.

37) B
- after inguinal hernia repair, the scrotum commonly becomes edematous and painful. Drainage is facilitated by elevating the scrotum on rolled linen or using a scrotal support.

38) C
- an indwelling catheter will keep the bladder empty, protecting it from injury during surgery. An abdominal shave would be more appropriate, a cleansing enema is usually not required because surgical procedures do not involve the intestines.

39) A
- a deficiency in vitamin K can lead to increased bleeding times since vitamin K is necessary for the formation of several clotting factors.

40) D
- lead concentrations are lower in cold water than in hot water. Tap water should be run from 30 seconds to 2 minutes prior to use. Wet cleaning methods more effectively remove lead containing dust.

After you reviewed your answers through its rationale, you can start from the beginning:

cgfns.org Questions – Reduction of Risk Potential (1-5)

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Commission on Graduates of Foreign Nursing Schools